CAPF (AC) 2013 (Paper-1) (Question 51-100)

Total Questions: 50

31. Which of the following expenditures is/are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India?

1. The emoluments and allowances of the President and the expenditure relating to his/her office

2. The salaries and allowances of the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the Council of States and the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the House of the People

3. Debt charges for which the Government of India is liable

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Correct Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 3
Solution:

The consolidated fund of India is the account of the revenue of the government received in the form of tax revenue, income tax, customs, central excise and non-tax revenue as well.

Salaries and allowances of the President, Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha are charged from it. The Government of India is liable debt charges for which including interest, sinking fund charges and redemption charges and other expenditures.

  • Article 266(1) in Part Xll: Establishes the Consolidated Fund of India as the primary fund for all receipts and expenditures of the Union Government.
  • Article 266(2) in Part XIl: Provides for the establishment of the Public Account of India, which holds public money received by or on behalf of the government that is not part of the Consolidated Fund.
  • Article 267 in Part XlI: Establishes the Contingency Fund of India, which serves as a reserve for urgent and unforeseen expenditures.

32. Which of the following are the privileges of the House of the People collectively?

1. The right to publish debates and proceedings, and the right to restrain publication by others

2. The right to exclude others - to exclude strangers from the galleries anytime

3. The right to punish members and outsiders for breach of its privileges

4. What is said or done within the walls of the Parliament, however, can be inquired into in a court of law

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Correct Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
Solution:

(1) The right to publish debates and proceedings, and the right to restrain publication by others.

(2) The right to exclude others to exclude strangers from the galleries anytime.
The right of the House to exclude strangers from the House is a necessary concomitant of the privilege of freedom of speech on the floor of the House. Hence, this statement is correct.

(3) The right to punish members and outsiders for breach of its privileges. It can punish members as well as outsiders. For instance, the condemnation of any law and breach of its privileges then the members of the house would be punishing.

(4) What is said or done within the walls of the Parliament, however, can be inquired into in a court of law.

33. A bill is deemed to be a 'Money Bill' if it contains only provisions dealing with

1. the imposition, alteration or regulation of any tax

2. the regulation of the borrowing of money by the government

3. the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India

4. the provision for imposition of fines or other penalties, or for the demand or payment of fees for licenses or fees for services rendered

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Correct Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
Solution:

Under Article 110 (1) of the Constitution, a Bill is deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions dealing with all or any of the following matters, namely:-

(1) the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax;

(2) the regulation of the borrowing of money or the giving of any guarantee by the Government of India, or the amendment of the law to any financial obligations undertaken or to be undertaken by the Government of India;

(3) the custody of the Consolidated Fund or the Contingency Fund of India, the payment of money into or the withdrawal of money from any such fund;

(4) the appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India;

(5) the announcement of any expenditure to be expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India or the increasing amount of any such expenditure.

34. Which of the following statements regarding the powers of the Speaker of the House of the People is/are correct?

1. The Speaker's conduct in regulating the procedure of maintaining order in the House will not be subject to the jurisdiction of any court.

2. Besides presiding over his/her own House, the Speaker possesses certain powers like presiding over a joint sitting of the two Houses of the Parliament.

3. While a resolution for his/her removal is under consideration, the Speaker shall preside but shall have no right to speak, and shall have no right of vote.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Correct Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only
Solution:

The speaker presides over the House's debates, fixes and ascertains which member may speak and which amendments are chosen for consideration. The speaker is also liable for keeping order while in the debates and may punish members who violate the rules of the House.
About Speaker of Lok Sabha

  • The Speaker of the LS is the presiding officer and the highest authority of the LS.
  • The LS must choose one of its members (MPs) to be the Speaker as soon as possible.
  • To be elected speaker, a candidate must receive a majority of votes from the MPs present and voting.
  • When the post of Speaker is vacant:
    ∗ The House must choose a new member to fill the vacancy.
    ∗ The Deputy Speaker presides over the Lok Sabha.
    ∗ If the post of both the Speaker and Deputy Speaker is vacant, the President can appoint a member of the LS as the Speaker pro tem.
  • When the speaker is absent:
    ∗ The Deputy Speaker presides over the LS.
    ∗ If both the Speaker and Deputy Speaker are absent, anyone from the Panel of Chairpersons can preside over the house.

35. A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of either House of the Parliament if she/he

1. holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State, other than an office exempted by the Parliament by law

2. is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent court

3. remains absent from all meetings of the House for a period of 60 days without the permission of the House

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Correct Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3
Solution:The following are the conditions for the disqualification for membership. Under Article 102 in the Constitution of India 1949:

(i) if he holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State, other than an office declared by Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder;

(ii) if he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent court;

(iii) if he is an undischarged insolvent;

(iv) if he remains absent from all the meetings of the house for 60 days without the permission of the house.

36. Consider the following statements regarding termination of sitting of a House:

1. Only the House of the People is subject to dissolution.

2. The powers of dissolution and prorogation are exercised by the President on the advice of the Council of Ministers.

3. The power to adjourn the daily sittings of the House of the People and the Council of States belongs to the Speaker and the Chairman respectively.

4. The Parliament cannot be dissolved as it is a permanent chamber.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3
Solution:Prorogation, adjournment and dissolution are the methods used to terminate the sitting of the House of the People. Prorogation means the termination of a session of the House by an order made by the President under article 85(2)(a) of the Constitution. Prorogation terminates both the sitting and session of the House.

An adjournment suspends the work in a sitting for a specified time, which may be hours, days or weeks. In this case, the time of reassembly is specified. Dissolution refers to put an end to the representative member of the composite house. So, the statement 1, 2 & 3 are correct.

37. Consider the following statements:

1. A person who is not a member of either House of the Parliament can be appointed a member of the Council of Ministers.

2. Anyone can be appointed as a member of the Council of Ministers for a maximum period of three years.

3. A person shall not be less than 25 years of age in order to become a minister.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
Solution:Parliament plays a major role in modern democracies; most of the large nations segregate the role and powers of the Parliament into two parts. They are called Chambers or Houses. One House is generally directly elected by the people and exercises real power on behalf of the people.

The Second House is generally elected indirectly and has some special operations. A person shall be eligible to become the Prime Minister if he is a citizen of India and a member of either house of the Parliament. He must have completed 25 years of age in case he is a member of Lok Sabha and 30 years in case of Rajya Sabha. So, the statement 1 & 3 is correct.

38. The Central Administrative Tribunal adjudicates disputeds with respect to the recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed

1. to public services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union

2. members of the defence forces

3. officers and servants of the Supreme Court or of any High Court in India

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Correct Answer: (b) 1 only
Solution:The Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985: Under Article 323A, the administrative tribunals for the adjudication of disputes and complaints concerning the recruitment of public services and posts concerning the union or of any state or any local or other authority within the territory of India or under the control of the government of India or any corporation owned or controlled by the government.

The CAT includes a chairman, vice-chairman and other members who are recruited by the President. So, only statement 1 is correct.

39. The following are some of the items of expenditure of the Central Government in India:

1. Interest payments

2. Major subsidies

3. Pensions

4. Loans and advances.

Which of the above is/are included in non-plan revenue expenditure?

Correct Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3
Solution:
  • The government's total spending can be divided into two broad sub-heads, planned expenditure and non-planned expenditure. non-planned expenditure constituting the bulk of
    expenditure.
  • Non-plan expenditure is what the government spends on the so-called non-productive areas and is mostly obligatory in nature. It includes salaries, subsidies, loans, interest and
    defence expenditures.
  • Plan expenditure, on the other hand, pertains to the money set aside for productive purposes like various projects of ministries. It is spent on productive asset creation through
    Centrally-sponsored programmes and flagship schemes.
  • Plan and non-plan expenditure has now been replaced by capital and revenue spending classification.

40. If we deduct grants for creation of capital assets from revenue deficit, we arrive at the concept of

Correct Answer: (d) effective revenue deficit
Solution:

Fiscal deficit is the difference between what a government spends by way of its expenditure and what it collects by way of revenue during a financial year.

Effective revenue deficit is referred to as the difference between revenue deficit and grants for the creation of capital assets. A fiscal deficit can lead to cost-push inflation. Higher interest rates increase production cost, which is burdened on the consumers, thereby leading to higher prices.